Therefore to the fundies the KJV is more accurate that the original!
| Author | Comment | ||
|---|---|---|---|
Sophiee1 |
|||
|
Yep -- because they say the KJV is "divinely inspired" and they then go on to say there is a rabbinical conspiracy that changed the Hebrew (e.g.
changing Isaiah 7:4 from virgin to young woman). These are the same conspiracy minded nuts who say that Jews don't read Isaiah 53 and so forth.
Therefore to the fundies the KJV is more accurate that the original!
סופי
And everything that Sarah tells you, listen to her voice. Bereshit (Genesis) 21:12
|
|||
ProfBenTziyyon |
|||
Sophiee1 wrote: Who needs facts when they have faith?
http://mordochai.tripod.com - פרופ' מָרְדֳּכַי בֶּן-צִיּוֹן, יְרוּשָׁלַיִם, אֶרֶץ יִשְׂרָאֵל |
|||
hadassah |
|||
JohnySkeptic wrote: Quite true---many of their newer translations, starting with "The New English Bible" (I think 1950) have "translated" the text accurately in that particular verse---so that it reads "young woman" and in the New English Bible, it accurately indicates the tense, saying "the young woman IS with child" (present tense). Many fundies are "up in arms" about these newer translations, claiming they are "heretical". I even saw someone (a self-proclaimed Israelite
) say these newer translations are a, (wait, get this...) "Zionist plot to destroy xianity"
|
|||
ProfBenTziyyon |
|||
hadassah wrote: I'm sorry to disabuse you of your misapprehension, hadassah, but in fact the "translations" you cite are still far from accurate; the reason being that הָרָה harah is not a verb but an adjective and the phrase הָעַלְמָה הָרָה ha-almah harah actually means "that pregnant girl [over there]". See my essay on "The 'Immanu'el prophecy' (Y'shayahu 7:14)" at URL http://mordochai.tripod.com/immanuel.html. http://mordochai.tripod.com - פרופ' מָרְדֳּכַי בֶּן-צִיּוֹן, יְרוּשָׁלַיִם, אֶרֶץ יִשְׂרָאֵל |
|||
