Doug -

To us, according to the King James in verse 26, there is indication that the messiah was cut off - but not for himself... which is what we believe that Jesus did - dying for the sins of the world, while he himself was without sin.


Your problem is that you're working with a false translation. The Hebrew expression used there is - v'ein lo, which literally is and he won't have, which is an idiomatic expression that means "and he will not be".

The reason the latter meaning supercedes the former is that there is no object that follows the expression - v'ein lo, i.e., "and he won't have ...[what?]..." {there is an identical form of the expression in Jeremiah 50:32, but it is followed by an object, - v'ein lo mekim, "and he shall have no one to raise him up"}. Therefore, in Daniel 9:26, this phrase turns into an idiomatic expression that stands on its own as "and he will not be". This is something of which the Christian translators are not aware, since one needs to really know and understand the Hebrew language to be able to 'catch' it.

Unfortunately, you won't accept my explanation and would rather go with the false translation in the KJV.

UriYosef

Last Edited By: UriYosef Thu, 3-Sep-15 08:18:20. Edited 1 times.