Rebecca:

I don't believe there is anywhere in Philo where the Logos is explicitly discussed in a human manifestation, although he does call it the "man of G-d" (Conf. 41), does discuss present Moshe's statement about himself in Num. 16:48 as a reference to the Logos (Her. 205-206), and does a play on Bezalel's name to imply that he is the Logos (LA 3.96). However, Philo does clearly discuss an "earthly" manifestation of the Logos in the form of the "malach Hashem" as it appears on earth to various folks (cf. Somn. 1. 228-239 and Cher. 1-3).

Regardless, I fail to see how the failure of Philo to describe an explicit human manifestation of the Logos logically disqualifies our points since every description of the role of the JC/"Word"/"Son", whether on earth or in Heaven, in the NT and earliest church writings dovetail perfectly with what Philo says of the Logos as "a god" rather than G-d Himself, even down to the lack of definite article for "God" in John 1:1's "kai theos ein ho logos".