According to John Gil, in his commentary on John 1:1, in the Targum and by Philo the use of 'the Word of God' as God is almost common (my phrasing).
I have no knowledge of the Targum or the works of Philo (in detail) but can you affirm that the early Jews had a notion of God and the Word of God as distinct, yet 'both' eternal?

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and as John here speaks of the word, as a distinct person from God the Father, text removed. rule violation 3. Non-Jews are free to ask questions about Judaism but non-Jews attempting to teach Judaism will have their posts edited or removed. Such posts are misleading., or Chaldee paraphrases; #Ps 110:1 "the Lord said to my Lord," is rendered, "the Lord said to his word"; where he is manifestly distinguished from Jehovah, that speaks to him; . . .(snip)


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Post edited. Rule violation #8. Excessive posting from the Greek Text (Xian book), Koran or other non-Jewish sources is not allowed (it is proselytizing). Again one may reference them (e.g., "see John 1:1";) , but not excessively paste them into posts.




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