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Posts: 2135
Sun, 6-Jan-08 08:40:31
Quote:My G-d, My G-d, why have you forsaken me" is indeed a universally agreed upon English translation of the actual original Hebrew of the Psalm of David (Psalm 22), and of the Aramaic Targum of the same verse.However, the word used by both gospels is not an actual Hebrew, nor Aramaic word. If one tried to argue Yeshu was speaking Hebrew, they would be wrong because "sabachthani" is not a Hebrew word. If one tried to argue Yeshu was speaking Aramaic, they would be wrong because "sabachthani" is also not an Aramaic word (and I am pretty sure "lamah" is not used in Aramaic).The "quote" of Psalm 22 in Mark and Matthew is a mixture of Hebrew, and a gibberish non-word, which - even if it was meant to be some kind of transliteration of SH'VAQTANI" - is not itself an actual word in either language. You could expect such carelessness by a Greek translator unfamiliar with Hebrew/Aramaic, but not someone claiming to be "G-d in the flesh".
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