I was suggesting something similar to the second suggestion in Uri's paper starting "The Targum Yonathan...". I was looking this up in the response to the claim that sabachthani was not a valid word. I haven't studied this whole thread enough to know all of the nuances of Folah's claim. However, I would not have expected Uri to sit idly by while someone claims that a word is nonexistent while he has an essay available that discusses possible sources for the word.

Uri states in his essay that any admission of Jesus that God had forsaken him causes unresolvable theological issues. It does not, but this is not the time to get into that discussion. My point here is just because you think that Jesus is out of place saying this is not grounds to tell someone that sabachthani is nonexistent, when you know very well that it has at least two possible sources.

Regarding Uri's questions, Jesus most assuredly did not say "sabachthani" just as the angel did not say "you shall call His name is Jesus" to Joseph in Matthew 1:21. The Greek is Iesus, which is the Greek style transliteration of Y'shua. The NT was penned in Greek due to the nature of the world at that time and the fact that the Gospel of Jesus was being sent to all nations. We know that Jesus and his disciples did not speak Greek amongst themselves, yet their words are translated into Greek in the NT. As Uri's essay points out, there is no Shin in Greek, so Sigma is used for any Shin or Sin. Beta also has only the b sound and not the v sound. This means that words spoken by Jesus or anyone else often do not come out in the Greek text sounding exactly like they were spoken. If that sits poorly with you and you reject the Greek language NT as the word of G-d because of that weakness, there is nothing I can say to remedy that for you and you may reject the NT as the word of G-d. For me, this is something I knew as a boy, and I accept that state of affairs as consistent with G-d's revelation to the nations.

If I were to try to determine exactly what sounds Jesus spoke that day, I would guess that Jesus said Sh'vachthani. That would not be considered to be pure Hebrew by you perhaps, but it might be a dialectic variation similar to Shibboleth and Sibboleth. The fact that the Greek text used Xi instead of Kappa and Theta instead of Tau indicates that to me.

The next question would be why Jesus didn't say azavtani as per Psalm 22, which it is clear from the Greek text that he did not. I would suggest that this is again a dialectic variation that was "the way they said it" in Jesus' day. For a simple example from English, there was a time when people would have cried out, "Don't forsake me," while today they would say "Don't leave me all alone," and they mean exactly the same thing today.

So I haven't proved anything, nor answered all of the possible questions. No, but I think that I have found a very plausible solution. Often in the NT and in the Tanach, we have to be content with that, and it certainly isn't a reason in itself to throw out the one or the other. Uri has confirmed in his essay that sabachthani is not ridiculous nonsense, as was implied to folah, when she was challenged to show that it was a real word. I will leave it to folah to decide if she was mistreated in this discussion.