I said, "So I haven't proved anything..."

Netanel said "Thomas, you are mistaken if you think it has been proven that sabachthani is a real world."

With this kind of interchange, no wonder we don't get anywhere.

"Sh'vaqtani is not a Hebrew word. Lama is not an Aramaic word. Azavtani is the word actually used in the Hebrew Psalm. M'tul mah or l'ma would have been used in Aramaic."

Since it was used in Ezra, I was assuming it was Hebrew, but I guess Ezra is Aramaic too. Fine. To me that is neither here nor there. If Jesus said "sh'vaqtani", and that is Aramaic, then he probably said "l'ma sh'vaqtani" or more likely "l'ma sh'vachthani". I claim that "lama sabachthani" is a Greek transliteration of that. That is all. A transliteration of this nature is thus not a real word in any language, until it becomes adopted. So what?

All I am saying is that we have here a reasonable possibility to explain "lama sabachthani". Now, what are the further linguistic questions that you say are raised?