Alesiah,

You raise some good points. If I may, I have some questions for you (since that's all I'm allowed to write) in response:
  • When Jesus referred to "my blood of the covenant" in Matthew 26:28, which covenant was he referring to?
  • If Jesus had just referred to the cup as "my blood", why would he then immediately refer to it as "this fruit of the vine" in verse 29?
  • In Genesis 49:11, what do you think is meant by "the blood of grapes"?
  • In 1 Cor 10:16, what did Paul mean when he says that the cup is a "participation in the blood of Christ" (and the bread "a participation in the body of Christ")?
  • Is it possible that Exodus 12 sets a reasonable precedent for the the idea of the people consuming the meat of the sacrifice?
    6. And you shall keep it for inspection until the fourteenth day of this month, and the entire congregation of the community of Israel shall slaughter it in the afternoon.
    7. And they shall take [some] of the blood and put it on the two doorposts and on the lintel, on the houses in which they will eat it.
    8. And on this night, they shall eat the flesh, roasted over the fire, and unleavened cakes; with bitter herbs they shall eat it.
Thank you.
 

Note: Forum rules require me to make the following disclaimer.

This post is not Jewish teaching, rather it is Mark's personal opinion as a non-Jew.