Hi Sophiee, The two statements (one can't be a sole witness / yes one can be a sole witnesses) conflict. The first is according to Jewish law, the second is against it.

"yes one can be a sole witnesses" - that's not what Jesus said. Jesus was not talking about "anyone" as a generic statement.

In the John 5 Jesus had performed miracles by healing people. It is the miracles that were his witness.

John 5:36 But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me.

In the passage in John 8 that you claim Jesus is contradicting himself, he had just said...

8:12 Then spake Jesus again unto them, saying, I am the light of the world: he that followeth me shall not walk in darkness, but shall have the light of life.

Well, the Pharisees really didn't care for that statement...
replying (paraphrased) "Sez you. You bear record of yourself".

Then Jesus said....

8:14 Jesus answered and said unto them, THOUGH I bear record of myself, yet my record is true: for I know whence I came, and whither I go; but ye cannot tell whence I come, and whither I go.

"THOUGH" - Jesus did not disagree with them that he bore record of himself regarding the statement he made concerning him being "the light of the world"

"YET" my record is true. Jesus said that his record was true - although he acknowledged that he was his own witness in making that statement to them - because he knew where he came from - heaven. And where he was going - heaven. It was not a generic statement as you suggest, Sophiee, i.e. . "yes one can be a sole witnesses" (quote Sophiee). Jesus didn't say "one" can be a sole witness. His was a unique case.... does God need a witness for His record to be true?

Then to back up his statement that his record was true, although admitting that he was a record unto himself, Jesus said

8:17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.

Then Jesus said, based upon that principle - because God is certainly not a man, who the two were in his case.

8:18 I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.

Now go back to John 5:36 above at the start of this post, and you will read that the miracles he did verified that he was sent by the Father and had the authority of the Father vested in him. Case in point, in the nt, do you read in any of the miracles Jesus performed, of him praying to God to heal whomever needed healing? No, Jesus healed them based upon his words - the authority vested in him.

fyi, Christians, on the other hand, pray and ask for healing, by calling upon the name of Jesus, i.e. "in Jesus's name" in our prayers.

Anyway, there is no conflict.

Peace,

Doug L.
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