Hi Uri, Matthew 23:1-3(KJV)- (1) Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples, (2) Saying The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: (3) All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

Your own GT doesn't agree with you. He should have at least referred to it as "our Law", if not "my Law", since the Jewish authorities were empowered by G-d to interpret the Written Law (Deut 17:8-12). No Doug, you've got another problem there from which you cannot escape with rabbit trails.


Jesus was being sarcastic. He for certain wasn't approving of their judgments in the manner in which they administered their responsiblities. I don't know of any Christian who disagrees that because Moses was one man and couldn't administer the day to day judgments that arose among the Children of Israel - that authority was by necessity delegated to others. So that part is not an issue.

Quote:Isaiah 42 kjv
42:6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.

What covenant is that, Uri?

One can definitely get the wrong impression when reading (a) a Christian translation, and, even worse, (be) taking a part thereof out-of-context. Even your Christian LXX identifies the servant in Isaiah's First Servant Song (Isaiah 42:1-4) as Jacob, i.e., Israel. So this is all about Israel (including our expected Jewish Messiah). The communication of the ideals entrusted to Israel will lead to a bond of unity, i.e., a convenant of peace among the nations of the earth (notice how Isaiah explicitly mentions the Gentile nations), and will also bring them spiritual enlightment (open their blind eyes).


Uri, I don't read anything about a covenant of peace in that passage. Christians believe that where it says in verse 46:6give "thee" for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles; the "thee" is referring to God giving Jesus as a covenant, a light to us gentiles, which we have embraced.

However, that you say that the covenant spoken of is a covenant of peace, associated with Judaism's expected messiah is not without interest to me. In the nt, regarding the condition of the world when the day of the Lord arrives, 1thess5:3 kjv For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child ; and they shall not escape. Although I must mention that Christians are promised a way of escape, not for extended discussion in this thread of course.

What has yeshu done with regard to those two items - world peace and the universal knowledge of G-d?


Was Moses sent to Egypt to bring world peace? I know you are thinking what does Moses have to do with my question. The point I am making Uri is the similitude of Moses to the experience of the Children of Israel and the account of Jesus as written in the nt to the human race. Subject matter for another thread perhaps.

Like Moses, the mission of Jesus was not world peace, but redemption of the soul and the redemption of the body. World peace is a hollow pursuit if the soul and body are not redeemed. So the answer is no, on both accounts; but according to our belief yes on redemption of the soul and boyd. World peace is not what I get up in the morning and hope for. I also don't come here and argue with my fellow humans beings for the sake of world peace. I doubt that you do either? Right or wrong?

Peace, ;)

Doug L.
To have a friend, you got to be a friend.