Hi all,
Recently, my friend, a Greek Orthodox xtian, and I were discussing some of the more damaging statements made by John Chrysostom towards Jews and
supposed "Judaizers" in Chrysostom's 6 or 8 sermons on the subject. He said that he felt they were not anti-semitic for they were not directed at Jews but
at xtians who were associating with Jews in the 4th century. Additionally, he said that he felt they have been misused by tyrants to justify some of the
worst crimes against the Jewish people. I commented that I felt Chrysostoms's statements were definitely on a personal level directed at Jews, and
that his influence as a teacher pretty much made him guilty of influencing a rather simple group to violence back then. Then my friend said that I needed
to understand that Chrysostom "did not want xtians associating with Jews much like Jews don't want other Jews to associate or be influenced by xtians."
He also said that at the end of days, from a Jewish POV, Gentiles will essentially be Jewish slaves.... Where does he get this from? It seems to me
that this issue is why he can overlook some of the very anti-semitic statements found in the early church father's works and in the n.t. in general.
What is the Jewish view on gentiles position or place at the end of days, in scripture, and other sources?
Thank you for your answers,
Tony
