I converted to Judaism about 10 1/2 years ago and was never questioned about my sincerity- probably because my closing statement on my conversion application was "I accept the authority of Hashem, halacha and the sages as being higher than my own."However, I have recently had contact with some old friends of mine in the US who happen to be Christian, and there were a few questions about the Oral Law I was unable to answer, and it bothers me. I would greatly appreciate it if someone could answer the following questions:
1. Was Rabbi Yehudah HaNassi's (head of the Sanhedrin and redactor of the Mishnah, the Oral Torah written down)choice of which school of tradition(-s) to record as Mishnah Divine Inspiration/Divine Providence, or a reaction to the spirit of the times (whatever that was)? Why did one school of tradition become "Mishnah" and any others known at the time become "beraitot" (secondary, supplemental or counter-point)?
2. If the origin of a given law is attributed to "halacha l'Moshe miSinai," meaning it was a tradition of our people that was accepted as law, is the authority to make that particular decision biblical ("According to all that they shall teach you, you shall do.")?
3. When it says (in Proverbs), "Do not forsake the teaching of your mother," does thatrefer to the traditions of our people? Also, if one does forsake the traditions of our people, specifically by abandoning practices that are attributed to no other source than "halacha l'Moshe miSinai," is that person actually violating Torah? If so, how? By separating themselves from the community (can't remember where that prohibition is written- can someone refresh my memory, please?), or by rebelling against the authority of the rabbis (who recorded certain traditions of our people as law)?
Thank you,
Yael Q.











